So what you're doing is actually assuming John 8:58 is a direct quotation of Exedous 3:14. But the connection isn't itself stated in John 8:58. "Before Abraham was, I am" can be read as preexistence language. Therefore, the passage may point to Jesus existing before Abraham without necesarily invoking the divine name. The crowd readiness to stone Jesus shows they thought He said something offensive. However, that does not prove that he intended that exact Exedous 3:14 meaning.
Mark 13:32 is harder to flatten into a simple "He's fully onniscient but just not using it" argument like you've tried to present. Mark 13:32 plainly says that the Son doesn't know the day or hour, so the most natural reading is that Jesus is describing real limitations in some sense. Therefore, "two natures" may explain the doctrine, however it still does not prove that this is what Mark 13:32 itself is teaching.
Also, Thomas's confession and Paul's language are strong statements about Jesus' status. However these don't automatically settle the meaning of every passage before it. Thonas saying "My Lord and my God" is a resurrection confession in a narrative setting. Also, Paul calling Jesus the 'visible example of the invisible God' is also exalted language, not a direct explanation of John 8:58 or Mark 13:32. Those texts support a high view of Christ, however they still need to be interpreted on their own terms.
What your also doing is assuming later Trinitarian Categories before reading them back into the Gospel texts. It doesn't make the Trinity impossible, but it does mean your argument has to still show that the passages require the same framework. In other words, the question becomes not wether the later theology is coherent, but rather Do these verses actually demand coherence?
03:45 AM