Argufight 0 coins 1 Call the winner — free, earn Call Score if you nail it 010 50% 50% gortamashvililuka4 Call the winner ◆ Model favors 010 · 71% (by rating & form) The prophet muhammad was not an ethically or morally sinless man and the quran contains ethical inconsistencies. Active 010 for vs gortamashvililuka4 against Round 1 of 7 Arguments (1) Comments Fact-checks: 0/3 used · next is free, then 2 coins Round 1 010 FOR Islam regulated slavery and encouraged manumission but never definitively abolished it. The Prophet kept concubines despite already having multiple wives. If freeing slaves was a supreme virtue, why didn't he free his own? Mariam the Copt was an Egyptian Christian slave sent as a gift by Muqawqis, Byzantine governor of Alexandria. She became the Prophet's concubine, bore him a son Ibrahim, and was freed after childbirth. Why was the sexual relationship necessary? Why not free her immediately and marry her to someone else? The Prophet already had jealous wives. If manumission was supreme virtue, why keep her as concubine long enough to bear a child? She was later freed, but only after giving birth. The sequence matters: freedom came after childbirth, not before. Rayhana bint Zayd was taken captive after her tribe's defeat. Her husband was executed. She was known for beauty. She initially refused to convert and remained a concubine for a long time before eventually accepting Islam. Earliest sources say she died a slave; others claim she married him. Either way, entry began through concubinage under extreme duress. If freeing slaves was virtuous, why keep her despite prolonged refusal? Why was sexual relationship necessary? Character defense (he married Khadijah, rejected Quraysh offers) may be true but doesn't answer why he exercised concubinage instead of immediate manumission. The prolonged refusal is key: she did not embrace Islam quickly. An unnamed concubine(believed to be mariam) (Sunan an-Nasa'i 3959, Sahih) caused jealousy; Aisha and Hafsa wouldn't leave him until he forbade himself from her. Why add concubines when wives were already jealous? What purpose did sexual relationship serve that manumission without sex couldn't? The hadith shows the household tension concubinage created and the Prophet's willingness to forgo the relationship only under pressure from his wives. If manumission was supreme, why own slaves at all? Moral exemplars should transcend norms, not just operate within them. Alcohol prohibition took 15-16 years (Quran 16:67, 4:43, 2:219, 5:90) and was absolute. Slavery and concubinage were regulated but never prohibited. Legally permitted until 1970 in Oman: 1,360+ years. Abolished in Saudi Arabia 1962, Yemen 1962, UAE 1963, Oman 1970. Why no clear endpoint? Umm walad gave conditional protection only if pregnant; otherwise enslaved property. System incentivized pregnancy, not autonomy. The contrast is stark: alcohol got a definitive timeline, slavery did not. Consent: Conversion not legally required, but options were: remain concubine (enslaved, conditional protection), convert and marry (immediate freedom, status), or refuse (captivity indefinitely). Choice made after family massacre, captor held absolute power. Legal non-compulsion doesn't equal meaningful consent. Pro/con: Marriage = freedom, rights, but conversion. Concubinage = no conversion, but enslaved unless pregnant. Constrained choice, not free. Removal of options doesn't equate to consent. The burden of proof should not fall on the captive to prove she was coerced; circumstances speak for themselves. Banu Qurayza: executed after surrender, while Banu Nadir and Banu Qainuqa were expelled for similar treaty breaches. Their betrayal was negotiation/contact, not attack. Some tribe members opposed conflict, including leader. Modern historians question massacre numbers (600-900 or 400) and historicity. The standard defense is treaty breach, but the punishment was excessive compared to other tribes. Jilbab: Concubines, even Muslim, were legally barred from wearing it. Umar whipped a woman for wearing it, saying "jilbab is only for free women." This denied Muslim concubines a visible marker of dignity, enforced inferior status. If abolition was goal, why create legal distinctions between free and enslaved Muslims? This structurally embedded slavery, not undermined it. The whipping shows active enforcement. If manumission was supreme, why keep Mariam until childbirth? Why keep Rayhana despite refusal? Why own slaves if not necessary? The institution was so embedded even the founder didn't break fully. Not abolition. This challenges the claim that his personal practice was primarily manumissionist.