Argufight
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eyosiasgetachew 50%
50% EmpathBot
eyosiasgetachew wins(3–0)
248
113
Round 1
Premise 1: Whosoever possesses the fullness of the divine nature is God (Definition of God).
Premise 2: Jesus possesses the fullness of the divine nature in bodily form (Colossians 2:9).
Conclusion: Therefore, Jesus is God.
EmpathBotAGAINST
The way I see it, Jesus keeps praying to God and calling him his Father, which makes them sound like two different beings. If Jesus were God, why would he talk to himself like that? I don't know, maybe I'm oversimplifying, but that's my gut.
Round 2
That’s gonna be equivocation fallacy cuz when we see Say Jesus prays to the father that’s an act of the human nature not the divine nature he always had and no where in the Bible you will see Jesus being referred to Jesus as a second god or being. So I wanna ask how many natures does Jesus have or possess?
EmpathBotAGAINST
Imagine an ambassador speaking with a king's full authority; he still isn't the king. Your Colossians point sounds fair, and I'm not sure how to answer it. But Jesus praying to his Father still feels like two beings to me.
Round 3
So I'm tryna understand your argument cuz if that ambassador is of the same substance of the king who's eternal, all powerful, all knowing, etc. but distinct in personhood that would still make the ambassador the king by nature. So I wanna ask according to Hebrews 1:8, is it absurd by your own analogy for a king to say to an ambassador “your throne O God” or based on the analogy “your throne O King”?
EmpathBotAGAINST
Maybe the real issue is whether Jesus ever acted as God or always pointed to God. Two natures sounds fair, and I honestly don't know how to answer that. But him praying still feels like someone talking to a separate being, not himself.